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Old 10-07-2014, 09:33 AM
hanshan hanshan is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by drewrad View Post
The reason I ask is because L5/S1 is an increasingly contested level for ADR depending on issues referred to as pelvic incidence/degree of sacral slope.

Would be curious what he says in your case.
Dreward, do you know of a publication where the L5-S1 controversy is spelled out?
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March 2014: MRI shows moderate degeneration at L5-S1
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